I have an old Nortel network with a bunch of servers attached. Connected to it is the new Cisco core, by way of a routed port. My task is to migrate servers over to the Cisco side of the network, with minimal downtime, and have full network connectivity, retain IP addresses/remain on the same subnet, and retire the Nortels. The Nortels are running VRRP, so I can fail the gateway over by becoming part of that group and later dropping the Nortels, but I can't seem to get a host on the Cisco side to participate in the original subnet. The routed port kills VLAN traffic, so I tried bridging the VLAN with the routed port, to no avail.
What is the log output that I should be seeing with "log adjacency changes" configured? Should I only be seeing LOADING to FULL and FULL to DOWN? I do not have "log adjacency changes detail" configured on an ASR9000 but I receive these state change messages that include EXSTART to DOWN and DOWN to DOWN.
RP/0/RSP0/CPU0:Mar 20 09:25:49.141 EDT: ospfv3[1021]: %ROUTING-OSPFv3-5-ADJCHG : Process 6000, Nbr 104.255.45.102 on GigabitEthernet 0/2/0/1 from LOADING to FULL, Loading Done
I'm Confused from the fact that Vlan tagging is done at access port and trunk port always gets tagged packets (untill its case of native vlan).But I still believe in other fact which says tagging happen only when a frame hit the trunk port which means trunk port gets untagged frame and tagging is not possible at access port.
Would like to know where actually this tagging happens ?
and also which command we can use to encapsulate 802.1q protocol to access port ? The way we do at trunk port is #switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q Is the above command applicable for access mode also?
I'm new to networking and was looking for some assistance. First off im using packet tracer to diagram my senario as I will be receiving my equipment next week to deploy.
Hardware to be used:
1. 2 catalyst 3560 switches 2. all connect to a sonic wall router
I have two companies that work in the same office space. I need to keep these companies seperate on their own vlan. They will however need to share the phone system.(Packet tracer file uploaded to give those who have the time to see what I put together.) [code]
I have this Cisco Switch: SRW2048-K9-NA. When I log into the Web GUI, I am provided the two options mentioned above for VLAN Management. I have fiddled with the two options and they seem identical to me. Is there really a difference, maybe better flexibility?
We are trying to config vlan 10 for data and vlan 20 for voice on the same port - port 1 of swtich SF300-24P to run both data and voice on different vlans.Do I have to add vlan 10 as an untagged vlan to port 1 and add vlan 20 as an tagged vlan to port 1?If I do not want to assign the native vlan 1 to port 1, how can I remove it ? The GUI page - assign VLAN to port does not allow to remove it.Aslo, what mode shall I set up on port 1? General, trunk or access ?
I have set up 2 DHCP pools and 2 VLANs (1 *the native* for data / 1 VLAN for voice). When I use the command "switchport voice vlan 20" the port disapear from the show vlan brief list. When I use the "switchport access vlan 20" it shows up in the show vlan brief in the correct VLAN and gives the phone an IP. I assume that using the access instead of the voice is wrong and the phones would not configure correctly. But when I use the access the phone goes to the next step and tells me the TFTP files are not found. Why does the port disapear from the VLAN list?
I often have to change switch ports to different VLANs. Regardless of whether I find the ports myself or if someone tells me what the ports are, I'll always perform additional verification steps to make sure that the port I'm changing doesn't connect to a switch, a router, a server, or something else that's equally important. But mistakes happen, and I have accidentally changed the wrong port to a different VLAN, thereby disconnecting the end node.
Is there a way to configure a port so that it will not allow you to change its VLAN (or make any configuration changes to it)? I'm imaging a command that when applied to a port would not allow you to make config changes to the port until you remove that command from that port, at which point you'll be able to change its VLAN, shut it, etc. If there isn't such capability, what strategy do you use to minimize the possibility of accidentally changing trunks, routed ports, or important access ports to different VLANs (other than labeling and verify)?
I am having some issues putting a Cisco 2970G in place of a HP Procurve that we need to return (leased hardware). I am not really a networking guy, I know just enough to get around and in to stuff.
On the Procurve our internet connection (Mosaic 100MB line) comes in to one of the SFP ports, I have PFSense as our router/firewall. When we moved the switch there we plugged it in and it worked without any issue.
I put one of our spare 2970G switches in, connected everything up and all the RJ-45 ports work without issue. I plug a cisco SFP adapter in and plug the mosaic line in and nothing. The switch shows that there is a SFP adapter plugged in to the port (tried all 4) but no connection. I know on the connection info from Mosaic they specify it MUST be set up as 1000MB Full Duplex. The web GUI on the 2970 won't let me change it on a port that is not up.
Is there a way to set it to 1000MB Full Duplex before I plug it in? I can telenet in to it if needed.
Right now to keep the connection up I have the Mosaic line going to the HP Switch, the PFSense WAN plugged in to that switch and the LAN side plugged in to the 27 , how can I set up a VLAN with just the SFP port and one other port to make sure the traffic from the WAN is separated from LAN traffic on the switch?
I have Cisco L3 3560G switch which directly connected with router . i have configured Vlan 2,3 on the switch and assign port 2 & 3 respectably. I want to management both vlan 2 & 3 from from L3 port g0/10 .
I want to do the inter vlan routing packet tracer file url...configuration of MLS are as bellow can anyone tell me why vlan on switch0 can not ping vlan on switch1. [code]
Scenario: I have a vmserver w four virtual servers all in configured w in different subnets. What's the best way to configure a 3750-x switch to route traffic from the virtual servers to their vlans?
I have a Cisco 2960 48-port switch. I enter "sh vlan" and it lists all the VLAN's. One of the VLAN's listed is "10" with the name "EPIC". What is the quickest way to find out what ports, if any, are assigned to this VLAN?
I am having difficulty following the logic of the port-translation. Here is the configuration on a 5505 with 8.3,So I would have thought the outside access-list should reference the 'mapped' port but even with 3398 open I cannot remote desktop to the host. If I open 3389 then I can connect successfully.
I have a 3750g connected to a "core" switch stack of 7 other 3750g's via 2 GigE ports in a trunk. This is currently in a switchport mode access port- channel so only the default vlan data is sent over. Now we have a need due to physical location of these switches, to allow vlan20 (DMZ) from this 3750g to the switch stack. I will configure a few ports on the switch stack for vlan20 and they need to be able to talk to the stand alone 3750g.To do this I will change the port channel on both endpoints to
-switchport trunk ecapsulation dot1q
-switchport mode dynamic desirable
also making the appropriate change on the interfaces belonging to this trunk.My question is, now that its a trunk port that carries multiple VLANs, how much is the bandwidth reduced on that 2gbps link?I have a very active VLAN (10) on the stand alone switch, but on the core I'm not going to be assigning VLAN 10 to any ports. So does traffic from VLAN10 even come across the trunk (wasting bandwidth) if no ports on the core side are assigned to it? I really just need vlan 1 and 20 (for now).
Me and my friend is currently setting up a Xen test environment. As you can se from the picture below we are running a Cisco ASA 5505 to reach the network from the outside.But the problem is that we want to reach the virtual pfSense's subnet's through the Cisco AnyConnect VPN. And currently the pfSense's are only configured with a public ip and a virtual interface to the VM's.could solve this problem by buying another PCI NIC, so that we have a physical link from the "pfSense box" to a tagged VLAN on the switch.But we are having problems configuring the switch to general vlan's. Cause Xen can't have it's management interface on a tagged VLAN directly from the XenServer,but the switch can tag the packet when it reaches the switchport. I would like to have "switch port general allowed vlan 2" for admin and 10 for "LAN"And then trunk the port to the Cisco ASA. But again, Xen stops me from doing this.
Second laptop attached to cisco 10mb port with an IP address of 10.18.158.200 and the cisco interface 10.18.158.254.Okay, here is what is happening and I cannot work it out.If I ping, from Laptop 1 to the cisco subinterface on 192.168.94.253 it is succesful. If I ping from the 1721 to Laptop 1 it is successful. I see the VPN come up and the rulebase on the junipers show the traffic flowing across (ICMP).If I ping, from the 10.18.158.254 interface via telnet on the 1721, I can ping all the way through to 192.168.194.254, which is the gateway for Laptop 1.
Any snmpset commands to modify port vlan membership on SG300-28 switches? I checked [URL] however this information is apparently only valid for catalysts.
The latest firmware is installed and the provided MIB files are used.
I have got 2 Cisco switches (3560G and a 3560X) connected by a trunk port. see config below:
3560G#sh run int gi0/26 Building configuration... Current configuration : 130 bytes
[Code].....
I can't seem to get VLAN 79 through to the first switch (3560G). Beyond this switch there is a router with acts as default-gateway for the respective VLANs. For VLAN 79 it is 192.168.79.1. I can ping this from the first switch but can't ping it from the second (3560X) switch but can ping 192.168.25.1 which also is the default gateway for this switch.
I have a 3560 switch with the following ports config [code] I would like to use theses ports on a different vlan to connect 4 pc's to them. Can I just remove them from the vlan, remove the trunk switchport and set up on the vlan i want them on with no trunking?
We need to have one connection with less internet bandwidth assigned to it than all other other connections. Basically it is a separate conection from all others, incoming just from one switch port and separate VLAN.I know this can be done on the switch by limiting the bandwidth allocated to a port,
however, is it possible to have the speed limited down, just before it goes to the internet, ie, on the ASA, rather than doing it on the switch?The firewall is an ASA 5505.
Cisco Catalyst 2960 series,i want do a SNMP request over OID. When the output should be like this: Portnumber and VlanID. Is there a OID for this output?
I've been tasked with breaking up a network that has run out of IP's, and have decided to use VLANs to accomplish this. I have to use an ASA5510 to accomplish all the routing between hosts in different VLANs.Port 48 is trunked to the ASA eth0/0 interface, with VLAN 99 and VLAN 20 tagging packets, VLAN 1 Untagged. Hosts hooked up to appropriate ports on Switch.
can i have 4 links from an ESX server to 6500 , each link represents a trunk link carries each the same 2 VLAN , 100 and 101 , keep port-channel out of the picture , does it work well?
We have a pair Cisco 6509 switch in which 2 * 48 Port 1G line cards and 1 * 16 Port 10G line Card, FWSM and Sup 720 are installed.We have Cisco UCS and HP Blade servers.Cisco UCS servers are connected to Cisco 6509 switch using Fabric Interconnect, and HP Servers are directly connected to core switches.Recently the team made many changes in the network. Upgraded the IOS in Cisco 6509 switch, Configured Port profiling , MAC Pinning , HBA Cards to UCS / Nexus 1000V Infrastructure. After this change they lost the connectivity to UCS and HP Serers. Every tower is checking at their end.
The Network Team has reverted back the core switch with old IOS , but still the problem persisit.I could only see the following error log in the core switch. There are two port-channels one between core 1 and core 2. The other is between core switch and FWSM module. [code]
We're going to be switching some of our gear from Foundry to Cisco, and were looking at the WS-C2960S-48TS-L. We currently have 3 different VLAN's, and I wanted to have 1 uplink back to our firewall (ASA 5550) and then let the firewall do the routing between the subnets. I realize that 1 link will carry the traffic twice then, but is that possibly with those switches to have all three vlans assigned to one port and then just let the firewall do the routing between the vlans or would I need to have 3 uplink ports back to the 5550?
I created a wlan just for our wireless IP phones.I assigned an interface I created which in turn was set to a specific port on company 2504 WLC. Connecting switchport is set to trunk. Right now I can't ping the voice wlan interface.
Actually i have 7600 router and all trafic passes through Gi0/1(Routed port) interface to 6500 series switch. I need to create a vlan on this router eg. vlan 10 Any how it is possible assign a vlan to routed port and traffic of wan interfaces and the vlan traffic passed together.