Cisco Routers :: RV042 Protocol Binding For SIP And RTP (VoIP)
Jun 26, 2012
I have a RV042 with a DSL (WAN1) and cable (WAN2) internet connection in Load Balance Mode. The DSL provider also provides internet telephony when registered via his line. When I disable the WAN2 port, my IP phone successully registers with the registration server of the DSL provider. I also defined protocol bindings for SIP (port 5060) and RTP (ports 5004 to 5020) to be bound to WAN1. My IP phone is set up to listen on only these ports. [code] With these protocol bindings in place when I re-enable WAN2, then after some time the phone reports "registration failed".Do I need to set something else apart from protocol binding to force the VoIP traffic to go via WAN1?
We have Point to point T1 environment where 3 additional WAN sites get internet access through our RV042. When we setup load balancing we have problems with https traffic, so we setup protocol binding for https and everything worked great from the local LAN. When trying to access https content from the remote LAN across the WAN the sites failed and I see no option to add additional subnets to the protocol binding. Is there a command line feature that supports adding additional subnets for protocol binding or is the local LAN the only option?
Is it possible to use protocol binding to route pings only over the WAN1 connection, even if WAN1 fails? It seems like the protocol binding feature of the Linksys RV042 is ignored once WAN1 fails. I would like to use a ping from the LAN to an external IP to verify if the WAN1 connection is down, or is up and then use that information to power up, or power down a secondary communications system (WAN2). However, if the protocol binding is ignored when WAN1 fails, then I will not be able to use the ping to establish the state of WAN1 connection. Addtionally, is it possible to use protocol binding to only route pings and allow all other traffic to use either WAN connection? I have seen these feautures on a different brand of router that failsover to a cell connection, but it is not a true dual WAN router. It would be nice if the RV042 would allow this kind of control. Are there any other dual WAN routers out there that have this kind of protocol binding feature?
I'm in the process of finding a dual WAN router with VPN support, that allow me to redirect some traffic to one specific WAN port and do load balancing of that specific traffic in case of that WAN failing (this last requirement is preferably but isn't fully needed).
Does the RV042/G could work with that? In that case, does it allow protocol redirect only? What about ip/ports redirecting? Or some kind of packet filtering to redirect to specific WAN ports?
I am trying to make this router prefer Wan1 for outbound while listening to both WAN ports for Inbound. I set it to Load Balance mode and added in a rule for Protocol binding:
All Traffic( TCP & UDP/1-65535)>192.168.1.1~192.168.1.254(0.0.0.0~0.0.0.0)WAN1 ENABLED
This says bind all Outbound traffic to anybody to WAN1
My Wan 2 connection is over satellite so it is easy to tell if a ping is going over Wan2 because the latency is >600mS
If I start a continuous ping to outside site - eg Yahoo.com then if I Fail WAN1 I see the ping latency Jump from 30mS to 700mS as it starts to use Wan2. If I restore the Connection to Wan 1 then the pings stay on WAN2 - seemingly forever. If I stop pinging for 30 mins then a restart of pinging does use Wan1 - so it fails back eventually If I restore Wan1 and then remove Wan2, it fails back right away
My problem is with our VOIP which uses a connection keepalive so there is no real downtime for the router to release the path to WAN2 should it fail over how I can force the router to fail back to Wan1 without removing Wan2?
I have dual WAN connections on rv042G in "office 1". LAN is 192.168.10.x
A gateway to gateway VPN is made with another "office 2" on rv042G too.
The goal is to reach the LAN of the other "office 2" : 192.168.5.x
Working good. Now I need to use protocol binding : One LAN ip need to use WAN 2 : All traffic :192.168.10.77~77(0.0.0.0~0.0.0.0)WAN2 -> Working
The rest of LAN should use WAN 1 (same as the VPN) When I create this rules, I can't reach the "office 2" LAN : All traffic : 192.168.10.100~150(0.0.0.0~0.0.0.0)WAN1
What the differences are between bandwidth management on WAN ports and protocol bindings?
If you can specify in each section which protocol should go where why having two places to configure this?Or are there some things to remind when using one of them?
We have tried a variety of options in an attempt to use Load Balancing (Protocol Binding) with an RV082 that has a site to site IPsec tunnel with another RV082. Both are v3.
Here is the issue. We have dual ISPs, one has great bandwidth, but we incur overages. The other has mediocre bandwidth, but has unlimited usage.
GROUP1 - We want most PCs to use the "unlimited" ISP for general surfing, email, etc. (Bound all ports for range of internal IPs to ANY dest to WAN1)
GROUP2 - We want to use the "faster" ISP for our VPN tunnel (mostly RDP and SIP traffic). (Bound all ports for range of internal IPs to ANY dest to WAN2)
So far everything works. The router will route traffic appropriately and GROUP 1 uses WAN1 and GROUP 2 uses WAN2.
Unfortunately, sometimes GROUP1 users need access to resources over the VPN (WAN2).
There is something not right with the routing. For example GROUP1 can ping and receive responses from devices on the other side of the tunnel, but GROUP1 can't access intranet sites on the other side of the tunnel. They also can't RDP to PCs on the other side of the tunnel.
Why does the router correctly route ICMP, but not RDP?
We've tried adding additional protocol binding rules for specific ports(80, 3389, etc) and ip ranges (both local and remote) to see if we could force GROUP1 traffic destined via VPN through WAN2, but it doesn't work.
Shouldn't VPN tunnels created and configured in the RVs not adhere to protocol binding? It just seems logical to me, but maybe I am missing something.
Our lab recently purchased a RV042G to setup a subnet (I don't know if this is the correct term) within our company's network. Eventually we like to put a dozen computers on this subnet along with a 24TB NAS drive for data storage. We like the computers in the subnet to be able to access the company's numerous servers.
To test the router setup before going all out, I have a WinXP SP3 computer and a MAC OSX 10.6.8 computer hooked up to it. Both computers can access the Internet just fine. The WinXP computer can access company servers thru the RUN command ("\servernameshare"), but the MAC is having issues with the SMB protocol ("smb://servername/share"). The same MAC if plugged directly to the network has no issues connecting to the company server.
Is this not working because the RV042G doesn't support SMB? or did I do something wrong with setting up the router? By the way, firewall is turned off, since the company already has its own firewall.
I have a cisco RV220W router used in a home environment. Recently I purchased a Siemens Gigaset A 580 IP phone. It works OK so far but I would like to optimize the configuration for VoIP traffic and apply QoS for VoIP on this router. Any guide with the recommended configuration and preferred settings of the same? I have not used QoS previously
I am unable to get any configuration parameters to work on my SRP547 for VOIP. ADSL2 works fine. Equipment replaces a ya.com (Arcadyan ARV4518PW) which worked ine albeit with significantly less features. Problems encountered due to the lack of equivalents for some parameters and an overabundance in the new unit which simply don't exist in the Arcadyan product.
I have an SRP547W hooked up as the office router with the standard office phones connected via the telephone ports at the back of the unit using 2 SIP lines as well as the PSTN by dialling hash first. We have just added a new staff member and bought an SPA303 with the intention of connecting it through registered SIP lines on the SRP547W, and hopefully have the facility to use the PSTN line when the SIP lines are busy.
The problem is, it connects to VLAN100 and gets its IP address and initializes fine however no lines show as configured and it can't make or receive calls. What do I need to configure on the SPA303 to tell it to use the SRP547W as its SIP Server/Proxy (not sure of the terminology).
We have a RV082 configured with two ISP Wan connections. We recently implemented a VOIP phone system (SIP) (192.168.1.50) that is being used in appliance mode on our network. We currently have two WAN connections Load Balanced. My goal is to configure all my VOIP traffic to go out through the 1st ISP and the rest of the data through ISP #2. is this possible to achieve using the RV082? We are using a Skype SIP Trunk connection.
We have recently purchased an RV082 router for our company. I have successfully managed to establish a VPN connection through PPTP and through Quick VPN (IPSEC?)
When i am connected through PPTP my software SIP client has 0.5% packet loss which is totally acceptable. When i am connected through Quick VPN my software SIP client has a 50-70% packet loss.
i have done the following settings on the router: Bandwidth Management:
High Priority for upstream and downstream UDP 10001-20000 and UDP 5060-5080
Wan Connection settings: MTU: 1492 bytes
I would like to know if there are any other settings that will improve VOIP over Quick VPN since RV082 supports 100 connections compared to 5 for PPTP.
If you are using load balancing how do you bind i.e. all HTTPS traffic to i.e. wan1. RV042G V2 you can inter 0.0.0.0~0.0.0.0 as Source IP to forward from all IPs, how do you do that with a V3?
Advanced networking but have managed to get our small office IP PBX running over a SIP Trunk. The only real problem we are having is choppy outgoing audio when there is other heavy outgoing traffic on the network.
My understanding is that I need to set some QoS parameters, which I have played with but it didn't seem to be useful. I mostly dealt with allocating bandwidth. I now think I need to somehow prioritize the outgoing RTP packets from our PBX (which runs on a PC on our LAN) to avoid the choppy audio. My research shows this can maybe be done with something called DSCP 46 and my router does support that -- how to exactly set the configuration.
I have the router for over two years, Present Firmware is V2.0.1.3, I have Polycom phone connected to the router using 8 x 8 VOIP service. The phone was working fine untill yesterday. 8 x 8 tech support suggested getting a different router. I have the same router at home and tried the same phone on my home router - it worked. So, the problem is not the phone but int he router. I tried to call Cisco tech support but found out that the warranty support expired and I need to buy a support plan. Called to buy the support, and gave up after an hours on hold. Left message.
I have RV042 and E4200 routers . I tried the manual UPnP port forwarding using Rv042 router and was succesful ( by typing 192.168.1.1 in the explorer and logged in using user name and password )
I am using a linux embedded system whose Internal IP ,Internal port are mapped .This system is connected to one of the LAN ports
I want to try auto UPnP port forwarding both for RV042 router and Linksys E4200 routers
After enabling the Upnp option only and logging out ,Can i add a port mapping entry in this router without logging in using a C++ program which runs on linux embedded system .
I was looking for a small business router that has VPN support and dual WAN support for load balancing. Upon reading reviews, I think RV042/RV042G is a good choice. Now am thinking if it supports intervlan/ router-on-a-stick configuration?
I have VOIP and was provided a modem, a Tilgen Router (Vood 452_A). I also currently have a Linksys WRT54G router. I also have a home surveillance system with a DVR that can be accessed via the net. I am trying to allow the ports to open so that traffic can navigate down to the DVR.My IPs:My VOIP has provided me with 6 static IP addresses. For sake of this issue they are:
67.xx.xxx.153, through .158My subnetmask is set to:
255.255.255.248My Settings:
The Modem is connected to world. To the modem I have the Tilgen Router connected. The Tilgen is set with an ip of .153 and the subnetmask listed above. DHCP is turned on and has IP range set for .154-.158. It is set in Bridge Mode with NAT and Firewall turned off. To that I have the WRTG54G router connected and assigned the router an Static IP of .154.. The cable is going into the Linksys WAN port.From a computer connected to a LAN port on the WRT54G, I see my public IP as .154, currently my internal IP is 192.168.1.15 so I believe I have to assign one of my Static IPs to this PC, however when I try to connect to the Linksys Router (.154) from the outside web, I am get a time out error. (also from a ping test.) My thoughts are to assign the Linksys to DHCP and use a range of .155-.158 to give each lan item a static IP. My question is will this work? Will each item in the network have its own IP and if I forward the port to the DVR that i needed, ie 80 for web client or 6100 for desktop client, will that forward through?Or do I set it to Router Mode and use the Tilgen to assign the ips.
On the Tilgen I also have an option for a DHCP relay or to turn off DHCP.
For clarification here is the setup chain Broadband/DSL Line>>Tilgen Modem>>(LANPort1)Tilgen Router(LAN Port2)>>(WAN) Linksys(LANPort1)>>DVR/Computers Found this walkthrough on setting the WRT54G into a Switch. If I did this, in theory the VOOD would assign those computers/dvr connected downstream via the WRT54G a static ip from my range set on the router. Then in theory I would not need to port forward port 80 since the DVR would be on its own public IP.?
I'm going to move offices into a shared situation with 3 companies. Each company will want its own private network so there's no snooping between companies. I am planning on using VOIP for the phone system (Nextiva cloud based). Is it possible to set up the system so that each company has access to the VOIP system but yet remains sequestered in the their own network for everything else. I was hoping to do this with one data port at each workstation using Cisco SPA-303 phones. The way I understand this, is that the phone plugs in to the data port and you daisy chain the workstation off from each phone. Is this possible to do this while having the system I described? Another wrinkle is that I'd also like all the networks to be access shared printers.
I connected the DSL (WAN1-Internet) port in and the Cisco RV042 was able to get an IP automatically. I tested the connection and it works just fine. Then I connect the Cable Modem-Comcast (WAN2-DMZ/Internet Port) in and I have the RV042 automatically optain IP address. But it just says 0.0.0.0. I've tried release/renew and that does nothing. Also, when I connect the 2nd Internet connection the Internet goes down. The only way it goes back up is when I disable under the PORT MANAGMENT setting.
All the settings have been kept to the default.How can I get the router to obtain an IP address from the Cable Modem-Comcast (WAN2 DMZ/Internet Port).
We have an Cisco RV042. We need to setup a VPN with a business partner who is already using our current IP scheme on another VPN with another client. They have asked us to NAT our IP's from 192.168.25.x to 192.168.245.x
I can't seem to figure this out on this router. I have done it on a Sonicwall and Watchguard, but can't seem to get it to work on the RV042.
I have setup the VPN and the One-To-One NAT. The tunnel will connect (using the 245.x IP as our local IP on the VPN setup), but no traffic will pass through.
i was planed to make a vpn over rv042 so i get the rv042 connected behind a thosmon 456(configured as a bridge) and 1 static ip ... and i configured the vpn and worked great ...but due to some circumstance i get a package of 6 ips insted of the old ip , so when i try to configure the router with the ISP they but the wan ip 10.232.x.x and told me that an internal ip from there lan ... and give me the 6 ip of 196.x.x.x to use as 1 for internal interface for the rv042 and 5 for the pc's,now the vpn not working anymore...notice: when try to configure the vpn tunnle in the local securty setting i mark the ip only and the ip that abear is the wan ip 10.232.x.x but i can't ping that ip beside i can ping the internal ip of the router 196.x.x.50does rv042 can support static and virtual ip inside the lan |! can i configure the thomson as pppoe and use one static ip from 196.x.x.x as wan ip for it ... and use anther 196.x.x.x ip for the rv042 to get access from outside and connect the lan to the rv042 with internal ip 192.168.x.x ...so i can access the vpn from outside .....and can connect the device i need to use static ip to the thomson ...
Firmware v4.0.4.02 has a nasty bug in the VPN section. If you switch to "IP by DNS Resolved" (yes, it says "Resolved" instead of "Resolution". Gotta love all the Engrish in the RV042!), it will automatically populate the field with "@yourdomain.com". This will cause the VPN to not lookup the proper IP address. Simply deleting the atmark after it populates will fix the problem.
Let's see what happens when we validate a Cisco RV042 webpage:
Errors found while checking this document as HTML 4.01 Transitional! Result: 353 Errors, 1 warning(s)
Don't even get me started on the horrible Javascript...
i am trying to make a simple Site to SiteVPN between two offices, one has Cisco ASA and one has RV042 router.when traffic initiated from ASA side, i keep getting this message in Debug and tunnel wont come up . [IKEv1]: Group = A.A.A.139, IP = A.A.A.139, Queuing KEY-ACQUIRE messages to be processed when P1 SA is complete.Apr 26 00:15:53 [IKEv1 DEBUG]: Pitcher: received a key acquire message, spi 0x0
whereas if traffic initiated from RV042 side, i keep getting this message in debug and tunnel wont come up.
Apr 26 00:43:44 [IKEv1 DEBUG]: IP = RV.RV.RV.139, Oakley proposal is acceptableApr 26 00:43:44 [IKEv1 DEBUG]: IP = RV.RV.RV.139, IKE SA Proposal # 1, Transform # 0 acceptable Matches global IKE entry # 6Apr 26 00:43:44 [IKEv1]: IP = RV.RV.RV.139, Connection landed on tunnel_group RV.RV.RV.139Apr 26 00:43:45 [IKEv1]: IP = RV.RV.RV.139, Connection landed on tunnel_group RV.RV.RV.139Apr 26 00:43:45 [IKEv1]: Group = RV.RV.RV.139, IP = RV.RV.RV.139, Freeing previously allocated memory for authorization-dn-attributesApr 26 00:43:45 [IKEv1]: Group = RV.RV.RV.139, IP = RV.RV.RV.139, PHASE 1 COMPLETEDApr 26 00:43:45 [IKEv1]: IP =RV.RV.RV.139, Keep-alive type for this connection: DPDApr 26 00:43:45 [IKEv1 DEBUG]: Group =
Apparently one of my two ISPs,CenturyLink, supports 6rd connections to IPv6.
This is supported natively on my Q1000 ActionTec modem, however my modem is in "transparent bridging" mode, so that the RV042 v3 can be the only router.
how to configure the RV042 to operate in this manner.
Per the CenturyLink FAQ: the IPv6 address space is:
2602::0 /24
Most importantly, can I do this WITHOUT buying a new modem.
I have a RV042 router (Ser#: NKS10462300, HW V3) running Firmware version v4.0.2.08-tm (Jan 14 2011 22:08:38) set up as a gateway. Right after it boots I am able to long into its web interface but shortly after that if I try to log into it I go through a very log time out while the web page is waiting the router to respond and then eventually IE comes back and says it 'cannot display the web [age'.
I have a Cisco RV042 VPN Router and I have added a group vpn, but when I am trying to connect I got an error that the remote vpn server isn't responding.
Here's my log:
2013/01/15 12:24:53 [STATUS]OS Version: Windows 7 2013/01/15 12:24:53 [STATUS]Windows Firewall Domain Profile Settings: ON 2013/01/15 12:24:53 [STATUS]Windows Firewall Private Profile Settings: OFF 2013/01/15 12:24:53 [STATUS]Windows Firewall Private Profile Settings: OFF 2013/01/15 12:24:53 [STATUS]One network interface detected with IP address MY HOME IP
[code]....
If I am trying to connect the status of the vpn user in the remote interface is "online".I have deactived my firewall at home and at the server for testing purposes.
