With most of my Layer2/Layer3 switches, I'm accustom to giving them a SVI on my management VLAN, and calling it a day. I can't find in the Cisco Nexus guides how to do something similar; everything points to the mgmt0 physical interface, which seems like I need to uplink it to an access port on another switch. Can somebody point me in the right direction for how to do give the Nexus an IP that I can ssh/snmp into it across a trunk for management? I must just be missing the keyword.. NX-OS is still quite a different beast.I see in the manual it says: "SSH has the following prerequisites: You have configured IP on a Layer 3 interface, out-of-band on the mgmt 0 interface or inband on an Ethernet interface." Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch CLI Software Configuration Guide page 284, How do I configure an IP on a Layer 3 interface on a Nexus?
I've got a bunch of 3750-X switches all running IP Base and acting as a routed access layer. They run OSPF in a totally stubby area with the distribution layer (Nexus 7K) as the ABR. We also have a physically separate management network into which the fa0 management interface of the 3750-X is connected. The management network itself runs OSPF and has multiple subnets and external access.
On the 3750-X, I'd ideally like to be able to run some sort of separate OSPF process for the management network or at the very least have a static default route for management traffic pointing out the fa0 interface, but clearly not have it interfere with the main default route for data traffic coming from the N7K ABR. Normally I'd just create a management VRF, sling the fa0 interface into it and run a separate OSPF process in that VRF. The problem is you can't create VRFs in IP Base! Surely there must be a way to do this? Cisco don't really expect customers to upgrade to IP Services just to have a working OOB Management network, do they?!
I have to replace the 3745 which is our edge router (running (C3745-ADVIPSERVICESK9-M), Version 12.4(23), RELEASE SOFTWARE (fc1)) with (I think) a 3900 (drawing from memory, I haven't actually seen the device yet).In an ideal world, I SHOULD be able to just set term length to "0", do a show run, copy that off to a text file, and then paste it into the new one...
I have an old Nortel network with a bunch of servers attached. Connected to it is the new Cisco core, by way of a routed port. My task is to migrate servers over to the Cisco side of the network, with minimal downtime, and have full network connectivity, retain IP addresses/remain on the same subnet, and retire the Nortels. The Nortels are running VRRP, so I can fail the gateway over by becoming part of that group and later dropping the Nortels, but I can't seem to get a host on the Cisco side to participate in the original subnet. The routed port kills VLAN traffic, so I tried bridging the VLAN with the routed port, to no avail.
I got the SG 300-20 small business L2/L3 switch. I've read through the 325 page pdf manual and I still can't figure out how to do what I need to do. Here is my setup using example ips.[code]
I want to be able to have any workstation I put on the workstations vlan to use 18.104.22.168.34 as a gw and from there route to 22.214.171.124 and from there to the outside. Basiclly, I want to be able to route ips from two different subnets on two different vlans. I've read through the docs and so far I have vlan1 setup and vlan 2 setup fine but I have no clue how to get the routing to cross vlans. The docs say the only way to have vlans talk to each other is by routing through the vlans ip interfaces but I have no clue how. There isn't a simple step 1,2,3 chapter that gets you to route between two vlans. What am I doing wrong? I put in some IP route entries but nothing seems to work.
I have my main branch router (3825) and two remote routers (2821's). They are connected through leased lines that do not touch the internet. For various security reasons I have to ensure that the traffic from the remote's are encrypted in a VPN tunnel even though it is still part of a private network.I have went ahead and created the tunnels and I can verify that they are up. I have applied the cryptomap to the correct interfaces, etc.So the question is - How do I ensure that traffic is not just being router out of the interface from the remote sites back to the branch router with or without using the VPN tunnel? I've taken down the tunnels and of course, the traffic is still being passed back and fourth.
Actually i have 7600 router and all trafic passes through Gi0/1(Routed port) interface to 6500 series switch. I need to create a vlan on this router eg. vlan 10 Any how it is possible assign a vlan to routed port and traffic of wan interfaces and the vlan traffic passed together.
When I try to configure a voice port (like voice-port 0/0/0:15) after doing a conf t, it gives me an error of invalid input detected.We are using a Cisco 3945. We have successfully setup 3825 and 2851 in the past.
CBWFQ kicks in when the interface becomes congested and there is no available space in the queue but I need to find a solution to the scenario below:Im using a Gigabit interface on the 3945 Router that connects to the ISP. The ISP limits bandwidth to 60Mb so I need to make sure when I reach the limit of the 60Mb the router starts using the BW percentages defined in the policy-map using classes. any kind of traffic go out as it wants but as soon as the 60Mb limit is reached, the priorities defined by the traffic classes will kick in just as if the interface ran out of queues (as CBWFQ usually works).
What are the pros and cons of configuring a Switch Virtual Interface (SVI) versus a routed physical port between layer 3 switches?For example, if I have two 4506s and have a need to run HSRP and route between them which feature is better and why?
On a router I can use IP Accounting or Netflow to see what kind of traffic is moving over an interface. Are there any tools on a 3750 switch with a routed interface which would tell you who is hogging the bandwidth on that interface?
Our ISP has set up a Cisco 2431-16fxs IAD (dual WAN) in one of our locations. It is used to connect the devices (PCs and SIP phones) on our LAN to internet (via 1st WAN port) and ISP's MPLS-based voip network (via 2nd WAN port).
We have 2 LAN subnets - the first subnet (PCs) requires internet access only, so it goes out via the 1st WAN port. The 2nd subnet (SIP phones) is connected the MPLS network (via 2nd WAN port).
We would like to have the SIP phones (that connects to MPLS-based network 192.168.1.x) to be able to access the internet. Is it possible to configure the IAD so that the phones are routed based on destination network; i.e. anything to 192.168.1.x via 2nd WAN port, anything else to the internet via the 1st WAN port?
I have some questions about how to configure my Cisco 1941 with a routed subnet from my ISP to forward them to 1 or more servers in my LAN.1 Routed subnet /29 from my ISP (over a fiber connection).In my LAN I have (at the moment) 3 servers, and about 15 clients.I would like to use the first ip address from the routed subnet for internet traffic from all the clients in the LAN.I would like to use the second ip address from the routed subnet for server1 so that server1 accept some allowed connections and that server1 connects to the internet with the second ip address from the routed subnet
I would like to use the thirth ip address from the routed subnet for server2 so that server2 accept some allowed connections and that server2 connects to the internet with the thirth ip address from the routed subnet.I would like to use the fourth ip address from the routed subnet for server3 so that server3 accept some allowed connections and that server3 connects to the internet with the fourth ip address from the routed subnet.[code]
I am using DHCP/TFTP to autoconfigure a 3945 router. The router properly obtains an IP address and finds the correct TFTP server. The issue lies in the download of the configuration file from the TFTP server. The router downloads the file, gives the "Ok" message, and prompts you to press Return to get started. When I view the running-config, several commands are missing from the Serial 0/0/0 section (HWIC-2T). If I modify the config file on the TFTP server to use Serial 0/0/1 instead and repeat the process, the configuration file loads without any issues and Serial 0/0/1 has all of the commands.
I also tried moving syntax around in my config file, but the end result is still the same. If I use Serial0/0/0 - I don't get all of the commands. If I use Serial 0/0/1, I do.
Application is that need to configure the VOIP with the existing Frame relay network ,where VOFR command is not shown in the router when type yhe command router config#dial-peer voice 123 need vofr On the 3945 router where in the router it is not accepting the above command,
How to configure traffic flow between computers inside VLANs and a routed port? Here is the setup details:
1. Switch 3750-X 2. VLAN 100 - ( SVI IP address 192.168.100.1 /24) 3. VLAN 200 - ( SVI IP address 192.168.200.1 /24) 4. routed port gi1/0/48 (IP address 192.168.150.1 /24). Note: this port is directly connected to a firewall ASA 5520 port IP 192.168.150.100 /24
Ip routing is enabled on the switch and inter vlan traffic is flowing ok. I can ping the routed port gi1/0/48 from any computer connected in the VLAN 100 or 200. For example computer with IP 192.168.100.25 can ping the routed port 192.168.150.1. Switch can ping firewall port 192.168.150.100 and the 'sh ip route' command shows the network 192.168.150.0 /24 as directly connected network.
any computer in the two VLANs CANNOT ping firewall ASA port 192.168.150.100 Is it because inter VLAN routing does not work with a routed port on L3 switch? I looked up fallback bridging, but it is meant for non IP traffic.The goal is I am trying to set the ASA port as an internet gateway for VLANs.
in our environment we have a 6509E as a core switch which is connected to five 3750G installed in remote sites and are layer 3 routes. the routing protocol is ospf. i am just wondering if we could possbily create a vlan in the core switch and extended it to the remote site throug layer 3 connection. The reason we are thinking to do this we want to have a server redundancy if one of the server goes in the core site we can just turn on the server which is in the same vlan in the remote site so that we can limit the downtime .
My first question is I have an access layer switch which is a single VLAN and I am trunking that VLAN to a distribution layer switch, I can ping the gateway on the distribution layer switch for THAT VLAN, But cannot ping the gateway address for the second VLAN I have on the distribution layer switch. I know it is simple, But I have forgotten and just need a push
Also I have a third VLAN set to route traffic not bound for those 2 VLANs out to a router is the statement "ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.252.2" good enough and do I actually need to create a VLAN for that traffic? and if so, is an access switchport the best option?
I just inherited a network and feel like.I am missing something. We use ATT&T Opt-E-Man which limits the MAC address to 50 for the connection or you have to pay.Hence the routing VLAN is the only access across the two sites.I have a VoIP vendor who insists on using the same VLAN for all sites. Upon exam the VLAN is at the remote site but it does not work.
I got a different scenario from one of my client.My client have two different branch offices and have 50Mbps point to point connectivity between them. All users in both braches using same series of IP pool ( 192.168.224.0/24) in both branches.Both branches he had only Cisco 2960S series switches only. And in both branches he is using IP cameras. He will monitor the assets by accessing IP cameras through the browser.His requirement is, he wants to prioritize the Video traffic( monitoring through the browser) over the normal data traffic.Note: He had a single VLAN only.
I am migrating an a group of workstations that run a fire system from one software to another. The current workstations run the following info:123.123.123.xxx 255.255.255.0The new workstations run:100.100.100.xxx 255.255.255.0There is a central switch location using a GE-DSG-244 Layer 2+ Managed switch. There are two remote location using GE-DS-82 Managed Switches.The two networks must remain isolated, yet use the same fiber communications. The central switch connects to the two location using MM Fiber. From my research I believe I need to use the 802.1q standard to allow port trunking between the two switches.
We are trying to config vlan 10 for data and vlan 20 for voice on the same port - port 1 of swtich SF300-24P to run both data and voice on different vlans.Do I have to add vlan 10 as an untagged vlan to port 1 and add vlan 20 as an tagged vlan to port 1?If I do not want to assign the native vlan 1 to port 1, how can I remove it ? The GUI page - assign VLAN to port does not allow to remove it.Aslo, what mode shall I set up on port 1? General, trunk or access ?
i'm going mad on following problem. I'm trying to get 2 networks seeing each other while one of the network is a non VLAN network and the other one is a VLAN network.They should use the same interface so i added VLAN e0/0.122 to the interface e0/0.Send a ping from my asa to both gw-IP's made me happy at first. In second in figured out that i cannot reach any client in the other network. For testing purpose i created an permit acl to any/any for both networks, but the packets still get dropped by the default implicit rule. (deny any/anyMaybe i'm to stupid for this